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RE: I got a question

"I agree with a bit of it, but one part I do not is the special case of the 3rd harmonic. The ear treats this much the same way as the 2nd; to this end the comment about the 3rd being more audible than the 2nd appears to be false ..."

I'm not following your logic here - specifically, what exactly do you mean by "The ear treats this [3rd harmonic] much the same way as the 2nd ..." ?

My own disagreement with Millett is his statement that "even-order distortion (2nd, 4th, and so on) is less audible than odd-order distortion (3rd, 5th, and so on)" - I think it's more likely that the audibility is monotonic with the order, i.e. 3rd is more audible than 2nd, 4th is more audible than 3rd, 5th more audible than 4th, 6th more audible than 5th, etc.

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