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Technical and scientific discussion of amps, cables and other topics.

RE: Fine.

Here is a quote you posted:

"The authors have demonstrated the two-tone experiment described above to numerous people on different systems. No one has ever failed to hear the timbral change with phase, and discern the polarity reversal on this signal with unvarying accuracy. Indeed, in a double-blind demonstration to eleven members of the SMWTMS audio group [13], the accuracy score was 100% on the summed 200-Hz and 400-Hz tones over loudspeakers, and overall, including musical excerpts, the results on the audibility of the polarity inversion of both loudspeaker channels were 84 correct responses out of 137, this representing confidence of more than 99% in the thesis that acoustic polarity reversal is audible."

And reference 13 is this:

[13] B. F. Muller, "Third World: The Scientific Subjectivists," Audio Amateur, vol. 11, p. 64 (1980 Jan.).


So apparently then Lipshitz did NOT separate the results between test tones and music, lumping them together and drawing his conclusion for both tones AND music. Or am I missing something? If that is the case, then Tlyyra's objections don't even agree with Lipshitz's own words and JA, while perhaps not strictly accurate comments were also not grossly off target with regard to these remarks.


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