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RE: Musical Dynamies not equal to DNR

Thanks for your response. I appreciate your kindness in explaining to me how you format your posts. I thought perhaps I was missing some option within the Asylum's software that would all you to quote other posts and to format your text. Your post is a relief as it explains why I cannot find options that are routine in other fora.

With regard to the substance of your post, I suspect that we are talking past one another which naturally could lead to misunderstanding. While most of us use our stereos to listen to music, the fundamental issue here is reproduction of sound.

None of us are listening to live musicians. All of us are listening to transducers creating vibrations in air. However magical the original performance, it has been captured as a waveform and after passing through our stereos that waveform dictates what the transducers will do. The bad part is the waveform is far from perfect. The good part is the waveform is consistent. Transducers don't have minds of their own. The do what the waveform tells them to do, no more and no less. Our stereos may only reproduce a shadow of the original event, but they can reproduce the same shadow again and again.

That consistency is the basis of my argument. However modest the playback equipment, it is still consistent. Clock radios don't wake up one day and sound like mega buck systems in acoustically treated rooms. Every day they still sound like clock radios. Likewise, fancy systems don't suddenly sound like clock radios. Setting aside room acoustics, if my stereo starts sounding different it's either because of a change in my mind or because the transducers are moving differently than they were before. I'm not interested in how mood changes or a snifter of brandy can affect the sound I perceive coming from my stereo. What I'm curious about is the case where the transducers moved differently than before.

If our transducers move the same way they did before, our stereo will sound the same. Any actual change to the sound of our stereos must be because the transducers moved differently than before. If they are moving differently than before, it must be because the waveform that told the transducers what to do is itself different. If that electrical waveform is different, then that difference should be measurable. When audioengr says he is flabbergasted by the change in dynamics wrought by a new power supply, then his transducers must be moving differently than they were before. How else could his stereo manifest this change? If his transducers are moving differently then perforce the waveform controlling the transducers must be different as well.

It should be trivial to detect whether or not actual differences to the waveform exist: do a null test between them and see what pops out. If audioengr were to do such a test we'd be able to see the difference and it's scope. Then we'd have something to discuss. Until then we only have a single anecdotal claim and that to me is nothing to get excited about.

With all respect, can you explain to me where my reasoning leads me astray?

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