In Reply to: Really...? posted by Revolver66 on August 13, 2012 at 09:29:31:
It would only be valid if the actual benefits were identical to those provided privately-which they aren't. It includes only spending by Medicare and private insurers and excludes services paid for privately. Medicare is, in point of fact, paying a decreasing share of the cost of the covered (much is offloaded to "medigap" plans or, for those that qualify, medicaid) while private insurers are paying stable or increasing costs.
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Follow Ups
- Your link is B.S. - padreken 08/13/1209:56:19 08/13/12 (2)
- Link please - I like numbers... (nt) - Revolver66 10:14:34 08/13/12 (1)
- "Numbers" wihtout understanding give you kaka - Victor Khomenko 10:24:19 08/13/12 (0)