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No, Christine, that is not how it works...

The theorem depends on two things.

1) The applicability of Fourier Analysis to real (meaning actual,physical, not real vs. imaginary or complex) signals. This has long ago been proven. (well, perhaps not for some relativistic or quantum issues, but those are not an issue here)

2) The applicability of the convolution theorem. This is also long-since established.

That's it. End of discussion.

You didn't answer serveral questions. 1) Have you tried this. 2) Did you dither your quantizer. 3) Did you ensure that any modulation of any test signal did not push it over fs/2?


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