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I read the excellent FAQ on this site regarding biamping. The writer says that if you biamp horizontally (one amp for the bass and another amp for the mids/highs), you need to use an external crossover. I do not understand why if you use two identical amps, you can not horizontally biamp. Can anyone tell me if I am wrong and why? Thanks.
Bart
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Topic - Horizontal Biamping Question - posbwp55@msn.com 22:16:26 09/10/08 (12)
- Here's some good info - Jay Buridan 17:46:34 09/11/08 (0)
- RE: Horizontal Biamping Question - sogood 17:14:49 09/11/08 (1)
- RE: Horizontal Biamping Question - hodad 17:47:12 09/11/08 (0)
- Sure you can! - DustyC 12:37:09 09/11/08 (0)
- But read what Charles Hansen says below. I tried it recently. Have to agree - Frihed89 08:45:57 09/11/08 (4)
- RE: But read what Charles Hansen says below. I tried it recently. Have to agree - Neil G 09:14:41 09/11/08 (3)
- Two of the same amps, OK. But different amps? - Frihed89 10:45:29 09/11/08 (2)
- RE: Two of the same amps, OK. But different amps? - hodad 11:44:13 09/11/08 (1)
- Do you mean two preamps? No, but I can - Frihed89 22:41:19 09/11/08 (0)
- you're not wrong - Neil G 08:16:44 09/11/08 (0)
- With two identical amps, vertical bi-amping is preferrable. - Opus 104 05:09:15 09/11/08 (1)
- The reason I asked this question.... - posbwp55@msn.com 18:51:51 09/11/08 (0)